A 25 yo female presented with 2 days of abdominal pain. The pain started in the mid-abdomen, subsequently moving to RLQ. She was initially seen at an urgent care that uncovered an elevated white blood cell count, and the patient was sent to the emergency department. The patient reported nausea without vomiting.
The patient was initially seen in the hallway due to no rooms being available, and the following ultrasound image was obtained:
42 y/o male presents with pain, swelling and some redness at his umbilicus.
29 yo male presents to the ED with the chief complaint of penile pain after approximately 8 hours of continuous coitus. He reports that the pain is worse with erections, but still present when flaccid. He denies fever, chills, n/v or any other signs or symptoms of systemic involvement. The patient denies any other medical history, or a family history of clotting disorders. Physical exam reveals a normal appearing flaccid penis that is mildly tender at the base. No discoloration is noted.
52 y/o male presents stating that he has had an area of redness on his right thigh that has “fever” in it. No systemic fever/SOB/CP. On physical exam, vitals are normal and there is a 5 cm patch of erythema and induration on the patient’s right anterior thigh. No lower extremity edema, no fluctuance of the area. You recall an article that showed 40% of patients with clinically suspected cellulitis were diagnosed with abscess via ultrasound and required incision and drainage, so you obtain the following scan. What’s the diagnosis?
A 24 y/o female presents with c/o vaginal spotting and severe abdominal pain. LMP 2 months ago. BP 82/40. You lie the patient supine and are unable to visualize the uterus, but obtain this clip instead. What’s your next step?